Iberian palatal and dental-palatal fricatives 
Author Message
 Iberian palatal and dental-palatal fricatives


Quote:
>I am trying to trace the evolution of palatal and dental-palatal
>fricatives, and their spellings, in the principal Iberian languages
>(Catalan, Basque, Castilian and Galician-Portuguese).

>It is my impression that in the Middle Ages they were represented
>as follows:
>     [S] was represented by <x> (which could also represent [ks]
>and [gz]), except that in Catalan when <x> (representing [S]) was
>at the end of a syllable and followed a vowel other than <i>, a
>(silent?) <i> was inserted, e.g. baix, mateix (fem. baxa, matexa);

The i was not silent originally.  I still pronounce it, as a
Western Catalan speaker (Lleida province): [baiS], [baiSE].
In Eastern Catalan, the <i> *is* silent.

Quote:
>     [Z] was represented by <j> (<g> before <e> or <i>);
>     [tS] was represented by <ch> in Castilian and Galician-
>Portuguese, by <tx> in Basque and Catalan, except that Catalan used
><ig> at the end of a word;
>     [dZ] (Catalan only) was represented by <tj> (<tg> before <e>
>or <i>).

>The orthographic scheme seems to remain unchanged in Basque, and
>largely so in Catalan, except that the inserted <i> is no longer
>limited to <x> syllable final (baixa, mateixa).  

>Phonetic changes in Catalan vary with region.  There seem to be no
>changes in Mallorca, while in central Valencia all four sounds have
>become /tS/ ("apitxat").  In Eastern Catalonia, many a [S] and [Z]
>has become /tS/ and /dZ/, respectively, especially when at the
>beginning of a phrase or following a consonant.  In Barcelona,
>moreover, [dZ] is sometimes pronounced /tS/.

In Western Catalan, initial x- and j-/g- are always prounced
[tS] and [dZ], as they are after a nasal.

The shibboleth "setze jutges d'un jutjat mengen fetge d'un penjat"
("16 judges of a court, eat liver from a hanged person", if you want
to know) is pronunced:

East:

West:
/sedze dZudZes dun dZudZat mendZen fedZe dum pendZat/
Apitxat:
/setse tSutSes dun tSutSat mentSen fetSe dum pentSat/

Quote:

>In Castilian both [S] and [Z] evolved into [x] or [h], spelled <j>,
>leaving <x> free to represent [ks] or [gz] only.  Judaeo-Castilian
>("Ladino") retains the original sounds.

>In Galician [Z] changed to [S], with spelling changed accordingly
>(xunta).

>In Portuguese (except in Northern Portugal?) [tS] changed to [S],
>but <ch> spelling remains.  Moreover, syllable-final [s] and [z]
>are palatalized in Portugal and Rio de Janeiro (not elsewhere in
>Brazil).

>I would appreciate additions and corrections, as well as
>information about Aragonese and Asturian.

I think I've got some info on Aragonese but I'll have
to get back to you on that (can't seem to find it now).

--
Miguel Carrasquer         ____________________  ~~~
Amsterdam                [                  ||]~  



Mon, 14 Apr 1997 22:30:49 GMT
 Iberian palatal and dental-palatal fricatives

Quote:

>I am trying to trace the evolution of palatal and dental-palatal
>fricatives, and their spellings, in the principal Iberian languages
>(Catalan, Basque, Castilian and Galician-Portuguese).

>It is my impression that in the Middle Ages they were represented
>as follows:
>     [S] was represented by <x> (which could also represent [ks]
>and [gz]), except that in Catalan when <x> (representing [S]) was
>at the end of a syllable and followed a vowel other than <i>, a
>(silent?) <i> was inserted, e.g. baix, mateix (fem. baxa, matexa);
>     [Z] was represented by <j> (<g> before <e> or <i>);
>     [tS] was represented by <ch> in Castilian and Galician-
>Portuguese, by <tx> in Basque and Catalan, except that Catalan used
><ig> at the end of a word;
>     [dZ] (Catalan only) was represented by <tj> (<tg> before <e>
>or <i>).

>The orthographic scheme seems to remain unchanged in Basque, and
>largely so in Catalan, except that the inserted <i> is no longer
>limited to <x> syllable final (baixa, mateixa).  

>Phonetic changes in Catalan vary with region.  There seem to be no
>changes in Mallorca, while in central Valencia all four sounds have
>become /tS/ ("apitxat").  In Eastern Catalonia, many a [S] and [Z]
>has become /tS/ and /dZ/, respectively, especially when at the
>beginning of a phrase or following a consonant.  In Barcelona,
>moreover, [dZ] is sometimes pronounced /tS/.

>In Castilian both [S] and [Z] evolved into [x] or [h], spelled <j>,
>leaving <x> free to represent [ks] or [gz] only.  Judaeo-Castilian
>("Ladino") retains the original sounds.

>In Galician [Z] changed to [S], with spelling changed accordingly
>(xunta).

>In Portuguese (except in Northern Portugal?) [tS] changed to [S],
>but <ch> spelling remains.  Moreover, syllable-final [s] and [z]
>are palatalized in Portugal and Rio de Janeiro (not elsewhere in
>Brazil).

>I would appreciate additions and corrections, as well as
>information about Aragonese and Asturian.

>Coby Lubliner


is it well-known in your field that tongue placements in Sanskrit
pronunciations often complete subtle neurological circuit loops
via the tongue-tip's contact with palate, dental palate, etc.? These
completed circuits induce subtle shifts in mood/consciousness.


Wed, 16 Apr 1997 05:37:38 GMT
 
 [ 2 post ] 

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